{The following is a thoughtful article that I copied from the Textus Receptus Academy}

My thoughts on the KJV use of Easter in Acts 12:4. Looking at the occurrences of “pascha”, there are only 3 that occur outside of the gospels. Acts 12:4, translated “Easter”, 1 Cor. 5:7 as “passover” when Paul refers to Christ being our passover, equating Christ’s death directly to the OT passover lamb, & Heb. 11:28 referring to Moses and the first passover. I believe the KJV translation of “pascha” as “Easter” is correct and it is a reference to a post-resurrection passover and I will go as far to say that’s the reason Easter (the fulfillment in Christ) is capitalized and passover (the OT shadow) is not, nor is “days of unleavened bread” capitalized. Christ was the ultimate and final passover lamb and with his death and resurrection, he made the OT celebration of passover obsolete and irrelevant. The timeframe of Acts 12 is AD 44 when James the son of Zebedee was executed, so about 11 years after Christ’s death depending on how you date it. It’s the only historical reference to passover after Christ’s death and, of course, unbelieving Jews still celebrated the passover and days of unleavened bread, but their celebration was as dead as their faith. I find it interesting that the majority of references to passover in the NT are in the gospels to frame the time of events and as an indication that Christ being crucified coincides with passover and unmistakably tying them together and confirmed by Paul when he states Christ our passover is sacrificed for us. In a way, it’s as if the KJ translators translated “Christ our passover is sacrificed for us = Easter, which happened at passover as confirmed in the synoptic gospels. So any references to passover on the calendar after Christ’s death and resurrection is, in fact, Easter for Christians.) So, yes, I believe the KJ translators went with Easter instead of passover because it is post death and resurrection of Christ, meaning passover has been done away with and what the Jews celebrate, even though they call it passover, is not passover because passover is gone forever. I find the argument for the KJV translation of Easter to refer to a pagan festival to be completely without merit and the KJ use of Easter totally defensible and correct. I understand why translators want to go with passover to be consistent in Acts 12, but I believe for the above reasons cited, Easter is the best and correct translation. Translating “pascha” as passover post Christ’s death and resurrection obfuscates the impact it had on passover.